Comment/question
The reason a woman could not remarry was because a woman could not
legally divorce. If she just left, she was still married... hence
remarrying was adultery.
I
also think (may have to find it later) that there is a verse in the old
law where if a woman was "put away" and there is a remarriage, then
marriage back to the old spouse was forbidden.
Response
Jesus addressed a woman divorcing her husband(Mark 10). It WAS being done
in His day. As a matter of fact Herodias divorced her husband
Philip---and it was a scandal because she married again while her
husband was still living. Realize WHY John the Baptist was beheaded:
because he told Herod that he had his brother Philip's wife. The
divorces of both of their spouses (Herod's and Herodias) did NOT
dissolve the bond of marriage between Herodias and Philip. She was his
wife until HE (Philip) died. Herod and Herodias were not in actuality
married in God's sight, but were committing adultery, in addition to
breaking Jewish incest laws.
As to
Deut. 24:1-4, I am in disagreement as to one not returning to their 1st
spouse after a divorce/remarriage. In that passage the wife was NEVER
charged with committing adultery through a remarriage. In the
certificate of divorce that was given the wife, she was PERMITTED to
become another man's wife. This passage in no way aligns with NT
teaching on divorce/remarriage.........with remarriage being adultery
while one has a living spouse.
Comment/question
I would like to add something to (name
deleted) discussion of the 1 Cor. 7 passages...there are several areas
in this chapter where Paul tells Wives that if they leave their
husbands, they cannot marry. Then he says "Husbands who are loosed from
their wives CAN marry." Paul was not being discriminatory in this: he
was responding to a LEGAL reality of that day. The WIFE could not
divorce her husband. She could leave him, but she could not divorce him
so was therefore bound to him unless he divorced her; under these
circumstances if she were to "marry" it would not have been legal since
she was still bound to her first husband. If the husband divorced the
wife, then she was no longer bound to him and was then loosed to marry
again.
Response
Jesus addressed both men divorcing their wives as well as wives
divorcing their husband. Wives could and did divorce their
husbands-----especially in the Gentile world---which Paul was a preacher
to.
Comment/question
Since women are no longer viewed as property, women are now equally able
as men to pursue a divorce. In the Greco-Roman era, from what I'm told,
only men could divorce their wives. Women could not divorce their
husbands..
Response
just wanted to point out where you are in error. First, in Mk. 10(a
gospel given to a Gentile audience--unlike Matthew which was sent to a
Jewish audience) Jesus DOES speak of men AND women putting away their
spouses, not just men. Secondly, we also know from Josephus' writings (a
Jew who wrote Jewish History), that Herodias divorced Philip to marry
Herod, Philip's brother. We also know from the scriptures that John the
Baptist referred to Herodias as Philip's wife, not Herod's and rebuked
Herod for having her (hence lost his head for that rebuke).............
Comment/question
Ah,
but cultures and traditions are not irrelevant. I'm not saying they're
of paramount importance, either. The Bible was not written in a vaccuum.
It was written by various authors in Israelite and Greco-Roman
societies/cultures. The words, the phrasing and even the understanding
of how far certain concepts extend is very much culturally rooted. (And,
since culture cannot be fully separated from language, these things have
a strong linguistic componant.) A verse cannot mean something now it
never meant when it was written.
If you take all of the Bible as your guide for what is right and wrong,
am I safe to assume you oppose women wearing pants, women not wearing
head coverings, men praying with their heads covered, women braiding
their hair, and women saying anything at all in church? The majority of
Christians today have decided those matters, though mandated in Pauline
scriptures, are culturally bound and do not apply to us in the same way
today.
Divorce meant something quite different to Greco-Roman Jews than it does
to us today. Financially, a divorced woman had nothing. She had
virtually no means of supporting herself—or the children she probably
took with her after the divorce. "Hardness of heart" to cast a woman and
her children out on the street? You bet! It was more than the severing
of a relationship and a legal arrangement of assets, which is what we
know it to be today. Therefore, while it made perfect sense to condemn
those who cast others into poverty, divorced people today don't have the
same lack of financial opportunities.
I'm not saying divorce is a good thing. I wouldn't wish it on anyone. I
just don't think it always represents moral failure.
That's it. I'm done. I don't want to go 'round and 'round in an argument
that will benefit no one.
Response
I understand that cultural practices are sometimes important to
understand what is meant throughout the Word. However, in regards to
divorce/remarriage, Jesus and Paul have spoken on the matter. I gave you
the passage by Jesus in which He speaks of women divorcing (Mark 10), so
to say that was NOT a cultural practice of Jesus' time is at odds with
what the Word of God says. Josephus, the famous Jewish historian, even
wrote of Herodias divorce from Philip, so it was a practice in Jesus'
day. I too, don't want to debate you on these issues, you just need to
understand that you are presenting your case from faulty
information-----information that directly contradicts scripture.
Comment/question
1 Cor 7:3-9
Although a man was allowerd to divorce his wife, the wife was not
allowed to divorce her husband for any reason. Legally the wife was
bound to her husband as long as the both lived or until he divorced her.
Response
Since it is your belief that adultery gives right to a divorce and then
a remarriage, I would like you to address a few scriptures if you will:
Jer. 3:1, Hosea 2 (particularly verse 7), Rom. 7:2-3, I
Cor. 7:39.
I know you addressed I Cor. 7:39, but it appears that you believe woman
could NOT divorce, only men could. The thing is that Jesus DID discuss
women divorcing their husbands (Mk. 10), so it WAS a practice of His
time---that's why He addressed it. Also, we need to understand that Paul
in
Comment/question
The
scripture literally says if a woman divorces her husband, she is to
remain unmarried.
Response
In
Mark 10, Jesus says and if the wife put away her husband and marry
again, she committeth adultery. Why? Because she is still joined to her
1st husband in the eyes of the Lord. He does not recognize the divorce
as dissolving what He joined together. If she is still joined to her
first, that means the first husband is still joined to her, so it would
be adultery for him to remarry as well.
Comment/question
People
use that scripture about a wife who departs ought to remain unmarried or
reconcile with her husband. This verse doesn't fit my story, so it
doesn't apply. I didn't leave my husband. He abused, abandoned, and
divorced me.
Response
Paul
never addresses who left who. It very well could be that the wife is put
out of the house. That doesn't change Paul's (actually the Lord's)
command. Paul also said a husband is not to divorce his wife. Paul did
not mean in either case: but if you do....................THEN you can
go and get another wife/husband.